Oscar Wilde’s response invokes the
undeniable history of queer culture and the romantic relationship between men.
The first sentence of his answer discusses pederasty, or the love between an
older man and a younger man. Wilde illustrates how this love is as old as time
is and has been written about through plays, sonnets and poetry since the
beginning of man. Wilde tries to convince the court that the love he shares
with his love is only the most natural sort of love and that both parties in
the relationship serve to benefit from one another.
In the time of Oscar Wilde’s
life the term “homosexual” was created thus making a separation of
sexuality. In the late 1800’s homosexuality was considered a disorder and was
believed to undermine the social system whose priority was to create lineage
and workers. I believed that although Oscar Wilde’s preferences were extremely
misunderstood he was one of those few people who could be public about his
sexuality and not face all of the
consequences. Because he was a famous literary symbol and not to mention,
extremely wealthy, he had the social standing to do what he liked. Even though
he did face some scrutiny, I believe that his “coming out” actually made him
even more popular and recognizable because his sexuality made him exotic and people wanted to read his
work.
Wilde’s reaction to the court’s
question about the love that should not be spoken relates to the modern era
because he believes that nothing is wrong with it and is willing to publicly
defend himself and his lover. It opens up a wide range of factors that go on in
today’s court rooms with gay marriage on the table, where people are defending
their right to love whoever they wish to love.
Are you suggesting that for Wilde the new science of sexology might have been muddling his preferred understanding of same-sex love as a sophisticated relationship grounded on the idealization of pederasty? Interesting. Is this why he alleges that his love is "misunderstood"?
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